M matt1386 Initiate Joined Feb 1, 2013 Messages 14 Feb 16, 2013 #1 Hi all, just a quick question Am I right in thinking if I buy a bottle of 50ml, 36mg liquid, then mixed that with 50ml of 0mg liquid of the same flavour, I would end up with 18mg strength without effecting the flavour ? Thanks very much
Hi all, just a quick question Am I right in thinking if I buy a bottle of 50ml, 36mg liquid, then mixed that with 50ml of 0mg liquid of the same flavour, I would end up with 18mg strength without effecting the flavour ? Thanks very much
AndyM Postman Joined Nov 3, 2012 Messages 835 Feb 16, 2013 #2 Yup 18mg but as to the flavour not altering it may alter slightly as no nic base has a different flavour
Yup 18mg but as to the flavour not altering it may alter slightly as no nic base has a different flavour
T Thiswasfree Initiate Joined Oct 29, 2012 Messages 19 Feb 16, 2013 #3 While you would be diluting the nic strength, you would also be diluting the strength of the flavour too. oops !! Ignore that! Just noticed you are adding the same flavour juice. I really should pay more attention! Last edited: Feb 16, 2013
While you would be diluting the nic strength, you would also be diluting the strength of the flavour too. oops !! Ignore that! Just noticed you are adding the same flavour juice. I really should pay more attention!
K KulrMeStoopid Guest Feb 16, 2013 #4 Thiswasfree said: While you would be diluting the nic strength, you would also be diluting the strength of the flavour too. Click to expand... unless using the same flavour in 0mg nic and 36mg nic
Thiswasfree said: While you would be diluting the nic strength, you would also be diluting the strength of the flavour too. Click to expand... unless using the same flavour in 0mg nic and 36mg nic
T Thiswasfree Initiate Joined Oct 29, 2012 Messages 19 Feb 16, 2013 #5 Haha. Yeah, sorry I have corrected myself.